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Revision as of 01:56, November 14, 2008 by Ixthis888 (talk | contribs) (Undo revision 77665 by Ixthis888 (Talk))
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I'm not here to question the perpetual virginity of Mary, but simply to question the logic of a statement related to this reality. In the article it is said: "If Mary is not Ever-Virgin, then Christ did not become God Incarnate. If Christ became God Incarnate, then Mary is Ever-Virgin." I really don't see how this is logical. Mary very well could have chosen to have sex after the birth of the Lord and it would not have annulled the reality of the Incarnation. Deusveritasest 00:18, November 14, 2008 (UTC)