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Exclusively Non-Chalcedonian?

Wouldn't it be more correct to say that Miaphysitism is also a secondary Christology of the Chalcedonian churches on the basis of the definitions of the First Council of Ephesus and the Second Council of Constantinople? Deusveritasest 02:08, March 9, 2009 (UTC)

It depends, this article represents the Oriental Orthodox point of view on what miaphysitism means and not the Eastern orthodox definition. That is why the article has a disclaimer at the top to indicate that the definition is from their point of view and not from the Eastern church ... i hope this provides some insight. Vasiliki 03:19, March 9, 2009 (UTC)
This makes me think of the ecumenical discussions that have been had in the past 30 years between the OO and EO. If I remember correctly, the agreement that we hold the same faith was based primarily off of mutual analysis of Cyril of Alexandria and his formula "one incarnate nature of God the Word". If this is the case, then wouldn't it be logical to conclude that the Oriental Orthodox by and large have accepted us as (hypostatic) Miaphysites? Deusveritasest 04:57, March 9, 2009 (UTC)
Not really. The terms Miaphysite and Dyophysite refer not only to the inner content of theology but also to the language of the theology itself. Thus, while some argue that they are really the same faith, it would be nonsensical to say that they use the same language. They don't. —Fr. Andrew talk contribs (THINK!) 19:03, March 9, 2009 (UTC)
Father, I am not suggesting that Miaphysitism and Dyophysitism are, linguistically, the same system of thought. Rather I am suggesting that the EOC (Chalcedonian) has officially accepted both a form of Miaphysitism and a form of Dyophysitism as both acceptable points of our Christology. Deusveritasest 19:32, March 9, 2009 (UTC)
Officially? Not by a long shot. Yes, there have been talks, but as yet, there has been nothing official to come out of those talks that has been ratified by the leadership of either communion. —Fr. Andrew talk contribs (THINK!) 20:11, March 9, 2009 (UTC)
Excuse me. It seems I haven't made myself clear yet. I wasn't speaking of unity with the Oriental Orthodox. That is an entirely different subject. I'm speaking simply of the Cyrilline Christology of Miaphysitism. This system of thought was defined at the First Council of Ephesus, and even again at the Second Council of Constantinople after the establishment of Dyophysitism at the Council of Chalcedon. Given this, I don't see how there is any way to avoid accepting a certain form of Miaphysitism as a complimentary system of Christology in the EOC. Deusveritasest 20:17, March 9, 2009 (UTC)
While Cyril does use the phrase mia physis, I think it would be anachronistic to attach an -ism to his Christology. Miaphysitism as a term refers to the Christology of the Non-Chalcedonian churches. While it would be correct to say that the Chalcedonian churches regard Cyril as fully Orthodox in his Christology, I don't think it would thus be correct to say that we have officially accepted Miaphysitism. —Fr. Andrew talk contribs (THINK!) 20:22, March 9, 2009 (UTC)
Well, I think our difference here has to do with the definition of Miaphysitism then. I don't agree that it is accurate to boil down Miaphysitism to "the Christology of the Non-Chalcedonian Churches". I see Miaphysitism as more so simply the Christology built by Athanasius and Cyril of Alexandria in their of the phrase "mia physis tou theou logou sesarkomene" and officially defined at the Council of Ephesus. "Chalcedonian" and "Non-Chalcedonian" are fine enough terms to differentiate our two churches, as acceptance or rejection of Chalcedon is the most basic principle that divides us. Why should we hand over the term "Miaphysitism" to the Non-Chalcedonians as if they have some sort of monopoly on the Cyrilline/Ephesine Christology? Finally, I hope it is clear that I am not seeking to suggest that we in the EOC have officially accepted the faith of the OOC. This is not my concern in this article. Deusveritasest 20:37, March 9, 2009 (UTC)