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Talk:Filioque

2,354 bytes added, 10:11, April 8, 2010
Pro-Filioquist, Pro-Roman Hijacks
:Why? What's "Scripture Catholic site" and do you have a link? Thanks, — [[User:FrJohn|<b>FrJohn</b>]] ([http://www.orthodoxwiki.org/User_talk:FrJohn&action=edit&section=new talk])
 
== Pro-Filioquist, Pro-Roman Hijacks ==
MaximustheConfessor has been adding conspicuously anti-Orthodox biased materials to this article.
Thanks for your time. -CircularReason
 
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As Fr. Lev had pointed out, the Catholic understanding of the Filioque is neither heretical, nor heterodox.
 
"The problems on the order of terminology seem thus to be resolved and the intentions clarified, to the extent that each party, the Greeks and the Latins, during the sixth session (July 6, 1439) were able to sign this common definition: "In the name of the Holy Trinity, Father, Son and Holy Spirit, with the approval of this sacred and universal Council of Florence, we establish that this truth of faith must be believed and accepted by all Christians: and thus all must profess that the Holy Spirit is eternally of the Father and the Son, that he has his existence and his subsistent being from the Father and the Son together, and that he proceeds eternally from the one and from the other as from a single principle and from a single spiration" (DS 1300).
 
"There is an additional clarification to which St. Thomas had devoted an article of the Summa ('''"Utrum Spiritus Sanctus procedat a Patre per Filium,"''' I, q. 36, a. 3): "We declare," said the Council, "what the holy Doctors and Fathers stated” that is, that the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Father through the Son” tends to make understandable and means that the Son too, like the Father, is the cause, as the Greeks say, and the principle, as the Latins say, of the subsistence of the Holy Spirit. And since all that the Father has he has given to the Son in his generation, with the exception of being Father, this very procession of the Holy Spirit from the Son the Son himself has eternally from the Father, from whom he has been eternally generated" (DS 1301)."
 
(The Spirit and the Filioque Debate[http://www.vatican.va/holy_father/john_paul_ii/audiences/alpha/data/aud19901107en.html])
 
 
The term "Byzantine" is not insulting, but is the accepted academic term, whereas "Eastern Empire" is a reference to an eastern portion of the Roman Empire under ONE emperor.
 
Although we might not call Muhammad a prophet, should we not be respectful enough to say that he is called such? Similarly, Thomas Aquinas is called a saint. Do you not know that many Orthodox revere St. Francis of Assisi? Why not Thomas Aquinas as well?
 
My edits are ambitious only inasmuch as they seek a recount of history free even from Orthodox bias.--[[User:Maximustheconfessor|Maximustheconfessor]] 10:11, April 8, 2010 (UTC)