I understnad that most Orthodox theologians, as do I, follow the Gospel of John and do not consider the Last Supper a Passover Meal. If I understand correctly, one of the consequences of this understanding is the fact the that leavened bread is used in the Eucharist in the Orthodox church. Are there other consequences, results, etc. of this understanding? It seems to me that the Synoptics agree with John, but have been misinterpreted.

I am writing an article on the date of the Last Supper, i.e., was it the Passover Meal (night beginning Nisan 15)or was it the night before (night beginning Nisan 14). ? Apart from , or maybe along with, textual consideradions, the way the early Greek-speaking church understood the Supper must, it seems to me, be taken into consideration.